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Re: Volumetric efficiency question
Posted to Technical Theory Forum on 7/28/2005 12 Replies

Just a question. Lets take a single cylinder engine for simplicity.

AS the air entering the cylinder is only on the inlet stroke why would we need to divide by 2 to get Volumetric Efficiency??? Surely VE is the total Swept volume + clearance volume compared ... Login to read more.

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